By Ross Pavlac's own statistics, 65 percent of pedophiles are heterosexual ("Letters" 12/1/95). And Pavlac uses this to justify discriminating against gays who are in positions that put them in contact with children? It seems that he would have greater success by doing just the opposite--discriminating against heterosexuals.
Of course, I realize he was using this figure in an attempt to prove that the percentage of pedophiles that are homosexual is greater than the percentage of homosexuals in the general population, and that therefore a homosexual is more inclined to be a pedophile than is a heterosexual.
I'll leave detailed debunking of his statistics to those more capable than I. There is something more frightening in his argument. It is that the chance a person might have a tendency towards pedophilia based on classification like heterosexual or homosexual is justification enough in Pavlac's eyes to discriminate.
Following this logic, if it could be proven a higher percentage of one ethnic group committed a certain crime than existed in the general population, then it would not only be all right, but a civic obligation to discriminate against such a person who might be put in a position to commit said crime. This simply based on the ethnic group from which he or she came.
While Pavlac's number juggling may seem intellectual, ultimately his reasoning is simplistic. Discriminating against a person because of something he might do benefits no one.